BIOLOGY CET 2013 ANSWER KEY (MOBILE VIEW ALSO )

CET – BIOLOGY – 2013
VERSION CODE: B – 1

1. Assimilatory power is
1) NADPH2 2) ATP 3) ATP and NADPH2 4) FADH2
Ans: (3) ATP & NADPH2
Formed during light reaction
2. ECORI cleaves the DNA strands to produce
1) Blunt ends 2) Sticky ends 3) Satellite ends 4) Ori replication end
Ans: (2) Sticky ends
Recognition site of ECOR, is GAATTC CTTAAG
3. Read the statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct choice from those given:
Statement (A): Women are at the peak of conception on the 14th day of ovulation.
Statement (B): Vasectomy is the method normally employed to avoid conception in females.
1) Statement (A) is wrong, (B) is right 2) Statement (A) is right, (B) is wrong
3) Both the statements are right 4) Bo the statements are wrong
Ans: (2)
4. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA are 3’ TAC GCG ACG 5’. The complementary DNA strand should have
1) 5’ AUG CGC TGC 3’ 2) 3’ ATG CGC TGC 5’
3) 5’ UAC GCG ACG 3’ 4) 5’ ATG CGC TGC 3’
Ans: (4) 5’ ATG CGC TGC 3’
5. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding spinal cord?
1) It is composed of outer grey matter and inner white matter
2) It is composed of outer white matter and inner grey matter
3) It is composed of outer grey matter and inner colourless matter
4) It is composed of grey matter only
Ans: (2) It is composed of outer white matter and inner grey matter
6. Match the entries in Column I with those of Column II and choose the correct answer
Column – I
Column – II
(A)
Restriction endonucleases
(P)
Kohler and Milstein
(B)
Polymerase chain reaction
(Q)
Alec Jeffreys
(C)
DNA fingerprinting
(R)
Arber
(D)
Monoclonal antibodies
(S)
Karry Mullis
1) (A) – (R); (B) – (S); (C) – (Q); (D) – (P) 2) (A) – (R); (B) – (Q); (C) – (S); (D) – (P)
3) (A) – (Q); (B) – (R); (C) – (S); (D) – (P) 4) (A) – (Q); (B) – (S); (C) – (R); (D) – (Q)
Ans: (1) (A) – (R); (B) – (S); (C) – (Q); (D) – (P)
7. Which taxonomic term may be suggested for any rank in the classification?
1) Class 2) Order 3) Species 4) Taxon
Ans: (4) Taxon
8. In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin production the genes for α and β polypeptides were inserted into the plasmid by the side of
1) Antibiotic resistance gene 2) Lac z promoter gene
3) β galactosidase gene 4) Ori
Ans: (2) Lac z promoter gene
9. Which one does not belong to monera?
1) Slime moulds 2) Mycoplasma 3) Eubacteria 4) Archaebacteria
Ans: (1) Slime moulds
It is a member of protista
10. The diagram given below represents the T. S. of dicot leaf. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D, which denote their functions and choose the correct one given below:
1) A : Motor action ; B : Photosynthesis; C : Conduction ; D : Transpiration
2) A : Motor action ; B : Conduction ; C : Photosynthesis ; D : Transpiration
3) A : Transpiration ; B : Photosynthesis; C : Conduction ; D : Transpiration
4) A : Transpiration; B : Conduction; C : Photosynthesis; D : Motor action
Ans: (1) A : Motor action ; B : Photosynthesis; C : Conduction ; D : Transpiration
In the diagram, between motor cells gap has shown. It look like guard cell. Diagram is not clear.
11. Which of the following tissue is not a component of a complex tissues?
1) Parenchyma 2) Collenchyma 3) Sclerenchyma 4) Tracheids
Ans: (2)
12. Mosses and ferns are
1) Thallophytes of plant kingdom 2) Angiosperms of plant kingdom
3) Gymnosperms of plant kingdom 4) Amphibians of plant kingdom
Ans: (1) Thallophytes of plant kingdom
Moss is Bryophyte
Ferm is Pteridophyte

13. Plasmodermata is usually observed between
1) Sieve tubes and Bast fibre 2) Trachea and Phloem fibres
3) Xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres 4) Sieve tubes and companion cells
Ans: (4) Sieve tubes and companion cells
14. The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of
1) 8 cells 2) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
3) 8 nuclei 4) 8 cells and 7 nuclei
Ans: (2) 7 cells and 8 nuclei

15. Cork Cambium of dicot stem originates from
1) Dedifferentiated parenchyma cells of cortex
2) Dedifferentiated collenchyma cells of cortex
3) Parenchyma cells of medullary ray
4) Parenchyma cells of pericycle
Ans: (2) Dedifferentiated collenchyma cells of cortex
16. Match the words of Column I with that of Column II and choose the correct answer given below:
Column – I
Column – II
(A)
Algae
(P)
Gymnosperms
(B)
Riccia
(Q)
Pond scum
(C)
Spirogyra
(R)
Autotrophic
(D)
Gnetum
(S)
Liverwort
1) (A) – (R); (B) – (S); (C) – (Q); (D) – (P) 2) (A) – (P); (B) – (S); (C) – (Q); (D) – (R)
3) (A) – (S); (B) – (P); (C) – (R); (D) – (Q) 4) (A) – (R); (B) – (Q); (C) – (S); (D) – (P)
Ans: (1) (A) – (R); (B) – (S); (C) – (Q); (D) – (P)
Riccia is an example for bryophyte
17. The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by the activity of
1) Guard cells 2) Epidermal cells 3) Mesophyll cells 4) Lenticels
Ans: (1) Guard cells
Both K+ pump theory and starch hydrolysis theory explain the stomatal movement.
18. In which of these following phyla given as the adult shows radial symmetry, the larva shows bilateral symmetry?
1) Annelids 2) Arthropods 3) Molluscs 4) Echinodermata
Ans: (4) Echinodermata
(1), (2) and (3) have bilaterally symmetrical adults.
19. A thin film of water covering the soil particles and held strongly by attractive forces is called
1) Run away 2) Hygroscopic 3) Gravitational 4) Capillary
Ans: (2) Hygroscopic
It is not available for absorption
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20. Which one of the following groups of 3 animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological features?
Animals
Morphological features
1
Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin
-
Jointed appendages
2
Cockroach, Locust, Taenia
-
Metameric segmentation
3
Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach
-
Ventral solid nerve cord
4
Liverfluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber
-
Bilateral symmetry
Ans: (3)
All are non-chordates
21. Consider the following statements and select the correct one:
Statement (A): Pure water maximum water potential.
Statement (B): The osmotic potential is zero in pure water.
(1) Both statements are correct and (B) is not the reason for (A).
(2) Both statements are wrong.
(3) Both statements are correct and (B) is the reason for (A).
(4) Both statements are correct.
Ans: (3)
Water potential decreases as the solute concentration increases.
22. A bivalent of meiosis I consist of
(1) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(2) Two chromatids and one centromeres
(3) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres
Ans: (1) Four chromatids and two centromeres
i.e., two double stranded chromosomes become pairs. It is called synapsis.
23. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecules of photosystem II are accepted first by
(1) Ferredoxin (2) Pheophytin (3) Cytochrome b (4) Cytochrome f
Ans: (2) Pheophytin
It is the primary electron acceptor of PS II
24. Match the following lists of animals with their level of organization and choose the correct sequence.
Column – I
Column - II
(A)
Organ level
(P)
Pheritima
(B)
Cellular aggregate level
(Q)
Fasciola
(C)
Tissue level
(R)
Spongilla
(D)
Organ system level
(S)
Obelia
(1) A – S, B – R, C – P, D – Q (2) A – S, B – Q, C – R, D – P
(3) A – Q, B – S, C – R, D – P (4) A – Q, B – R, C – S, D - P
Ans: (4)
Obelia is coelenterate. Hence it is tissue grade.
25. Oxidative decarboxylation occurs during the formation of
(1) Citric acid and Succinic acid
(2) Citric acid and Oxaloacetic acid
(3) Acetyl CoA and Succinyl CoA
(4) Oxaloacetic acid and Oxalosuccinic acid
Ans: (3)
Both the steps release CO2.
26. The edible part of the fruit of apple is
(1) Endocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Pericarp (4) Perianth
Ans: (2) Thalamus
27. Given below is an electron acceptor. Mention its status, which is labelled as (A)
Cyt++ Cyt⎯⎯→⎯e2++ (A)
(1) Oxidised (2) Reduced (3) Phosphorylation (4) Hydrated
Ans: (2) Reduced
Donor is oxidized and recipient is reduced. 28. The Floral formula is that of
(1) Hibiscus (2) Banana (3) Tulip (4) Vinca
Ans: (4) Vinca
i.e., bicarpellary condition
29. Interferons are the proteins molecules produced from the
(1) Normal cells (2) Infected host cells
(2) Macrophages (4) B. Lymphocytes
Ans: (2) Infected host cells
30. Tikka is a
(1) Fungal disease (2) Viral disease (3) Bacterial disease (4) Protozoan disease
Ans: (1) Fungal disease
i.e., Cercospora personata (Deuteromycete)
31. Which of the statements is correct?
(1) Each back cross is a test cross.
(2) Each test cross is a back cross
(3) Crossing F2 with F1 is a test cross
(4) Crossing F2 with P1 is called a test cross
Ans: (2)
32. Amrithmahal is a/an
(1) Dual purpose breed (2) Exotic breed
(3) Cross breed (4) Drought breed
Ans: (1)
33. Gynecomastica is the symptom of
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome (2) Down’s syndrome
(2) Turner’s syndrome (4) Cri-du-chat syndrome
Ans: (1)
34. The branch of biology that deals with study of fossil animals is known as
(1) Para biology (2) Phylogeny (3) Paleontology (4) Para zoology
Ans: (3)
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35. A colourblind man marries the daughter of another colourblind man whose wife had a normal genotype for colour vision. In their progeny.
(1) All the children would colourblind.
(2) All their sons are colourblind.
(3) None of the daughters would be colourblind.
(4) Half of their sons and half of their daughters would be colourblind .
Ans: (4)
36. The plants which have antidiabetic properties
(1) Ocimum sanctum (2) Gymnema sylvestre
(2) Adathoda vasica (4) Phyllantus emblica
Ans: (2)
37. Deforestation means
(1) growing plants and trees in an area where there is no forest.
(2) growing plants and trees in an area where the forest is removed.
(3) growing plants and trees in a pond.
(4) removal of plants and trees.
Ans: (4)
38. Lysosomes are produced by
(1) Golgi complex (2) Mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Leucoplasts
Ans: (1)
39. Kokkarebellur Bird Sanctuary is noticed in
(1) Mandya (2) Mysore (3) Chamarajanagar (4) Hassan
Ans: (1)
40. One of the following is also called Sewall Wright effect.
(1) Isolation (2) Gene pool (3) Genetic drift (4) Gene flow
Ans: (3)
41. Oran is a
(1) Sacred groove (2) Sacred landscape (3) Sacred animal (4) Endangered animal
Ans: (1)
42. Put the following parts of a reflex arc in the correct order beginning with the sensory receptor:
(A) Motor neutron (B) Interneuron (C) Effector
(D) Sensory neuron (E) Sensory receptor
(1) (E) (D) (B) (A) (C) (2) (E) (D) (A) (B) (C)
(3) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (4) (A) (E) (D) (B) (C)
Ans: (1)
43. The trachea terminates into
(1) Bronchial Tree (2) Atrium (3) (Bronchi (4) (Alveoli
Ans: (4)
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44. Match the entries in Column – I with those of Column – II and choose the correct answer given below:
Column – I
Column – II
(A)
FSH
(P)
Normal growth
(B)
GH
(Q)
Ovulation
(C)
Prolactin
(R)
Parturition
(D)
Oxytocin
(S)
Water diuresis
(T)
Milk secretion
(1) A – Q, B – P, C – T, D – R (2) A – Q, B – P, C – T, D – S
(3) A – P, B – T, C – R, D – Q (4) A – Q, B – T, C – S, D – R
Ans: (1)
45. Formation of activation calyx in the egg takes place
(1) Before fertilization (2) After fertilization
(3) At the time of Cleavage (4) At the time of Amphimixis
Ans: (2)
46. Which of the following part of Cockroach leg is attached to thorax ventrally?
(1) Trochanter (2) Claw (3) Femur (4) Coxa
Ans: (4)
47. Match the entries in Column – I with those of Column – II and choose the correct answer?
Column – I
Column – II
(A)
Cytokinins
(P)
Stress hormone
(B)
Auxins
(Q)
Ripening of fruits
(C)
Abscisic acid
(R)
Apical dominance
(D)
Ethylene
(S)
Bolting
(T)
Richmond Lang effect
(1) A – T, B – R, C – P, D – Q (2) A – T, B – R, C – T, D – S
(3) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D – P (4) A – Q, B – Q, C – T, D – R
Ans: (1)
48. Left auricle receives pure blood from the
(1) Pulmonary veins (2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Superior venacava (4) Inferior venacava
Ans: (1)
49. The semi-digested food that moves down the oesophagus is known as
(1) bolus (2) Chyme (3) Rugae (4) Protein
Ans: (1)
50. During the transportation gases, to maintain the ionic balance chloride ions shifts from
(1) RBC’s to plasma (2) Plasma to RBC (3) Lungs to blood (4) Blood to lungs
Ans: (2)
51. Read the statements (A) and (B). Choose the right one:
Statement (A): Atherosclerosis is a disease characterized by the thickening of arterial walls.
Statement (B): Deposition of cholesterol and triglycerides in the arterial walls causes atherosclerosis.
(1) Statement (A) is correct, (B) is wrong
(2) Both the statements are correct but not related to each other.
(3) Both the statements are correct and (B) is the reason for (A)
(4) Both the statements are wrong
Ans: (3) 52. Juxtaglomerular cells when there is a fail in ion concentration. ⎯⎯⎯→⎯)A(
Choose the correct pair labeled as A and B.
(1) A: Renin B: Chloride (2) A: Carbonic unhydrase B: Sodium
(3) A: ATPase B: Potassium (4) A: Renin B: Sodium
Ans: (4)
53. Ileocaecal valve is present in between
(1) Colon and large intestine (2) Colon and small intestine
(3) Stomach and small intestine (4) Cardiac stomach and fundus
Ans: (2)
54. The diagram given below denotes the various parts of a typical flower. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C and D and choose the correct option.
(1) A = Petals, B = Sepals, C = Stamens, D = Pistil
(2) A = Sepals, B = Pistil, C = Petals, D = Stamens
(3) A = Sepals, B = Pistil, C = Petals, D = Petals
(4) A = Sepals, B = Petals, C = Pistil, D = Stamens
Ans: (3)
55. Read the statements A and B identify the correct choice from those given below:
Statement (A): The egg of frog is moderately telolecithal
Statement (B): Sooner (or) later the cleavage pattern becomes irregular.
(1) Statement (A) is correct, (B) is wrong
(2) Statement (B) is correct, (A) is wrong
(3) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct.
(4) Statement (A) is the reason fro statement (B).
Ans: (4)
56. The most unstable RNA is
(1) Messenger RNA (2) Soluble RNA
(3) Ribosomal RNA (4) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA
Ans: (1)
57. Chose the right one which denotes genetic diversity.
(1) Chromosomes – nucleotides – genes – individuals – populations
(2) Populations – individuals – chromosomes – nucleotides – genes
(3) Genes – nucleotides – chromosomes – individuals – populations
(4) Nucleotides – genes – chromosomes – individuals – populations
Ans: (4)
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58. The portion of an Eukaryotic gene which is transcribed but not translated is
(1) Exon (2) Intron (3) Cistron (4) Codon
Ans: (2)
59. The appearance of chancre, rashes all over the body are the symptoms of
(1) Gonorrhoea (2) Aids (3) Syphilis (4) Fever
Ans: (3)
60. Read the statements (A) and (B). Choose the right one.
Statement (A): Synthesis of mRNA takes place in 5’ – 3’ direction.
Statement (B): Reading of mRNA is always in 3’ – 5’ direction.
(1) Both the statements are wrong.
(2) Statement (A) is wrong, (B) is correct
(3) Statement (B) is wrong, (A) is correct
(4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct
Ans: (3)

MATHS CET ANSWER KEY 2013 (MOBILE VIEW ALSO )

CET – MATHEMATICS – 2013
VERSION CODE: C – 2

1. If sin – 1 a is the acute angle between the curves x2 + y2 = 4x and x2 + y2 = 8 at (2, 2), then a = ___________ (4) 23 (1) 1 (2) 0 (3)
Ans: (3)
2. The maximum area of a rectangle that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 2 units is _______
(1) 8π sq. units (2) 4 sq. units (3) 5 sq. units (4) 8 sq. units
Ans: (4)
3. If the length of the sub-tangent at any point to the curve xyn = a is proportional to the abscissa, then ‘n’ is ______
(1) any non-zero real number (2) 2
(3) -2 (4) 1
Ans: (1)
4. ∫+−xsinxcos1n1ndx, n ≠ 0 is _________ (1) nxcotn (2) 1nxcot1n−−− (3) nxcotn− (4) xcot
Ans: (3)
5. ∫+−3x)1x(e)1x(dx = _________ (1) e (2) 2x)1x(e+ (3) 3x)1x(e+ (4) )1x(e.xx+
Ans: (2) 6. If I1 = . sin x dx and I2 = . cos x dx, then which one of the following is true? ∫π2/0x
(1) I1 = I2 (2) I1 + I2 = 0 (3) I1 = 2π.I2 (4) I1 + I2 = 2π
Ans: (4)
7. The value of ∫−21x|x|dx is __________
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
Ans: (2)
8. ∫
π+0444xsinxcosxcosdx =
(1) 4π (2) 2π (3) 8π (4) π
Ans: (2) 9. The area bounded by the curve y = sin ⎜⎛, x-axis and lines x = 0 and x = 3π is _____
(1) 9 (2) 0 (3) 6 (4) 3
Ans: (3)
10. The general solution of the differential equation 22yx1−.dx = y . dx + x . dy is ______
(1) sin (xy) = x + c (2) sin – 1 (xy) + x = c
(3) sin (x + c) = xy (4) sin (xy) + x = c
Ans: (3)
11. If ‘m’ and ‘n’ are the order and degree of the differential equation
(y||)5 + 4 . |||3||y)y( + y||| = sin x, then
(1) m = 3, n = 5 (2) m = 3, n = 1 (3) m = 3, n = 3 (4) m = 3, n = 2
Ans: (4) 12. If (, then sin-1 A + tan-1 B + sec-1 C = __________ (1) 2π (2) 6π (3) 0 (4) 5
Ans: (4)
13. The sum of the series, +++322.5.432.4.322.3.21 ………… to an terms is _______ (1) 2 (2) 12n21n−++ (3) 22n21n+++ (4) 22n21n−++
Ans: (2)
14. If the roots of the equation x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0 are in A.P., then 2a3 – 9ab = _______
(1) 9c (2) 18c (3) 27c (4) -27c
Ans: (4)
15. If the value of Co + 2 . C1 + 3 . C2 + ………… + (n + 1) . Cn = 576, then n is _______
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 9
Ans: (1)
16. The inverse of the proposition (p ∧ ~ q) → r is ____
(1) (~r) → (~p) ∨ q (2) (~p) ∨ q → (~r) (3) r → p ∧ (~q) (4) (~p) ∨ (~q) → r
Ans: (2)
17. The range of the function f (x) = sin [x], -4π < x < 4π where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x, is ______
(1) {0} (2) {0, -1} (3) {0, ± sin 1} (4) {0, -sin 1}
Ans: (4)
18. If the line 6x – 7y + 8 + λ (3x – y + 5) = 0 is parallel to y – axis, then λ = ______
(1) -7 (2) -2 (3) 7 (4) 2
Ans: (1)
19. The angle between the lines sin2α . y2 – 2xy . cos2 α + (cos2 α - 1) x2 = 0 is _____
(1) 90o (2) α (3) 2α (4) 2α
Ans: (1)
20. The minimum area of the triangle formed by the variable line 3 cos θ . x + 4 sin θ . y = 12 and the co-ordinate axes is ______ (1) 144 (2) 25 (3) 449 (4) 12
Ans: (4)
21. log (sin 1o) . log (sin 2o) . log (sin 3o) ……… log (sin 179o)
(1) is positive (2) is negative
(3) lies between 1 and 180 d) is zero
Ans: (4) 22. If sin x – sin y = and cos x – cos y = 1, then tan (x + y) =
(1) 83 (2) -83 (3) 34 (4) -34
Ans: (3)
23. In a triangle ABC, if aAcos = bBcos = cCcos and a = 2, then its area is ……….. (1) 23 (2) 3 (3) 23 (4) 43
Ans: (2) 24. = ………….
(1) loge 3 (2) 0 (3) log3 e (4) 1
Ans: (3) 25. Let f (x) = ⎨⎧ then f is ……………
(1) continuous everywhere (2) discontinuous everywhere
(3) continuous only at x = 0 (4) continuous at all rational numbers
Ans: (3)
26. In a regular graph of 15 vertices the sum of the degree of the vertices is 60. Then the degree of each vertex is ………..
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
Ans: (4)
27. The remainder when, 1010 . (1010 + 1) (1010 + 2) is divided by 6 is …………
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 0 (4) 6
Ans: (3)
28. A value of x satisfying 150x ≡ 35 (Mod 31) is …………
(1) 14 (2) 22 (3) 24 (4) 12
Ans: (3)
29. The smallest positive divisor greater than 1 of a composite number ‘a’ is ………….. (1) < 2 (2) = a (3) > a (4) ≤ a
Ans: (4)
30. If A and B are square matrices of order ‘n’ such that A2 – B2 = (A – B) (A + B), then which of the following will be true?
(1) Either of A or B is zero matrix (2) A = B
(3) AB = BA (4) Either of A or B is an identify matrix
Ans: (3)
31. If A = and |A⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡αα223| = 125, then α = ……………….
(1) ± 1 (2) ± 2 (3) ± 3 (4) ± 5
Ans: (3) 32. If A = 1 and B = x11x, then dxdA = ……………
(1) 3B + 1 (2) 3B (3) -3B (4) 1 – 3B
Ans: (2)
33. If the determinant of the adjoint of a (real) matrix of order 3 is 25, then the determinant of the inverse of the matrix is
(1) 0.2 (2) ± 5 (3) 56251 (4) ± 0.2
Ans: (4)
34. If the matrix = A + B, where A is symmetric and B is skew symmetric, then B = …. ⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡−1532 (1) ⎢⎡ (2) ⎥⎢⎡ (3) ⎢⎡ (4) ⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡−0110
Ans: (4)
35. In a group (G, ∗), for some element ‘a’ of G, if a2 = e, where e is the identify element, then (1) a = a – 1 (2) a = e (3) a = (4) a = e
Ans: (1)
36. In the group (Z, ∗), if a ∗ b = a + b – n ∀ a, b ∈ Z, where n is a fixed integer, then the inverse of (-n) is ………..
(1) n (2) –n (3) -3n (4) 3n
Ans: (4)
37. If = (1, 2, 3), = (2, -1, 1), = (3, 2, 1) and x ( x ) = α + β x γ, then →a→b→c→a→b→c→a→b→c
(1) α = 1, β = 10, γ = 3 (2) α = 0, β = 10, γ = -3
(3) α + β + γ = 8 (4) α = β = γ = 0
Ans: (2)
38. If ⊥ and ( + ) ⊥ ( + m), then m = →a→b→a→b→a→b
(1) -1 (2) 1 (3) |b||a|2→→− (4) 0
Ans: (3) 39. If , , are unit vectors such that + + = , then . + . + . = … →a→b→c→a→b→c→0→a→b→b→c→a
(1) 23 (2) -23 (3) 32 (4) 21
Ans: (2)
40. If is vector perpendicular to both and , then →a→b→c
(1) . ( x ) = 0 (2) x ( x ) = →a→b→c→a→b→c→0 (3) x ( + ) = (4) + ( + ) = →a→b→0→a→b→c→0
Ans: (2)
41. A tangent is drawn to the circle 2x2 + 2y2 – 3x + 4y = 0 at point ‘A’ and it meets the line
x + y = 3 at B (2, 1), then AB = ……….
1) 10 2) 2 3) 22 4) 0
Ans: (2)
42. The area of the circle having its centre at (3, 4) and touching the line 5x + 12y – 11 = 0 is …….
1) 16 π sq. units 2) 4 πsq. units 3) 12 π sq. units 4) 25 π sq. units
Ans: (1)
43. The number of real circles cutting orthogonally the circle x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y + 7 = 0 is ……
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) infinitely many
Ans: (1)
44. The length of the chord of the circle x2 + y2 + 3x + 2y – 8 = 0 intercepted by the y-axis is
1) 3 2) 8 3) 9 4) 6
Ans: (4)
45. A ≡ (cos θ, sin θ), B ≡ (sin θ, - cos θ) are two points. The locus of the centroid of ΔOAB, where ‘O” is the origin is …………
1) x2 + y2 = 3 2) 9x2 + 9y2 = 2 3) 2x2 + 2y2 = 9 4) 3x2 + 3y2 = 2
Ans: (2)
46. The sum of the squares of the eccentricities of the conics 4x2 + 3y3 = 1 and 4x2 - 3y2 = 1 is ………. 1) 2 2) 37 3) 7 4) 3
Ans: (1) 47. The equation of the tangent to the parabola y2 = 4x inclined at an angle of to the +ve direction of x-axis is ………..
1) x + y – 4 = 0 2) x – y + 4 = 0 3) x – y – 1 = 0 4) x – y + 1 = 0
Ans: (4)
48. If the distance between the foci and the distance between the directrices of the hyperbola 22ax - 22by = 1 are in the ratio 3 : 2, then a : b is ………….
1) 2 + 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 3: 2 4) 2 : 1
Ans: (1)
49. If the area of the auxillary circle of the ellipse 22ax + 22by = 1 (a > b) is twice the area of the ellipse, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is ………….. 1) 31 2) 21 3) 21 4)
Ans: (4) 50. cos ⎢⎡ = …………
1) 51 2) 562− 3) - 51 4) 56
Ans: (2)
51. The value of tan-1 ⎟⎟⎠⎞⎜⎜⎝⎛yx - tan-1 ⎟⎟⎠⎞⎜⎜⎝⎛+−yxyx, x, y > 0 is 1) π 2) - 4π 3) 2π 4) - 2π
Ans: (1) 52. The general solution of sin x – cos x = , for any integer ‘n’ is ………..
1) 2nπ + 43π 2) nπ 3) (2n + 1)π 4) 2nπ
Ans: (1)
53. The modulus and amplitude of 2)i1(1i21−−+ are ……..
1) 2 and 6π 2) 1 and 4π 3) 1 and 0 4) 1 and 3π
Ans: (3)
54. If 2x = - 1 + 3I, then the value of (1 + x2 + x)6 – (1 – x + x2)6 = …………
1) 32 2) 64 3) – 64 4) 0
Ans: (4)
55. If x + y = tan-1 y and 22dxyd = f (y) dxdy, then f (y) = …………. 1) 3y2− 2) 2 3) y1 4) y1−
Ans: (2) 56. f (x) =
Then which of the following is true?
1) f (x) is not differentiable at x = a. 2) f (x) is discontinuous at x = a.
3) f (x) is continuous for all x < a. 4) f (x) is differentiable for all x ≥ a.
Ans: (1) 57. Let f (x) = cos-1 . Then f’ (0.5) = …………
1) 0.5 2) 1 3) 0 4) – 1
Ans: (2)
58. If f (x) is a function such that f” (x) + f (x) = 0 and g (x) = [f (x)]2 + [f’ (x)]2 and g (3) = 8, then g (8) = ……..
1) 0 2) 3 3) 5 4) 8
Ans: (4)
59. If f (x) = f’ (x) = f” (x) + f”’ (x) + ……… and f (0) = 1, then f (x) = …………. a) e 2) ex 3) e2x 4) e4x
Ans: (1)
60. The function f (x) = 3x + x3 decreases in the interval
1) (-3, 3) 2) (-∞, 3) 3) (3, ∞) 4) (-9, 9)
Ans: (1)

PHYSICS 2013 ANSWER KEY (MOBILE VIEW ALSO )

CET – PHYSICS – 2013
VERSION CODE: B – 2

1. The speed of light in media M1 and M2 are 1.5  108 ms-1 and 2  108 ms-1 respectively. A ray
travels from medium M1 to the medium M2 with an angle of incidence . The ray suffers total
internal reflection. Then the value of the angle of incidence  is
(1) > sin-1 





4
3
(2) < sin-1 





4
3
(3) = sin-1 





4
3
(4)  sin-1 





4
3
Ans: (1)

2. Which of the following phenomena support the wave theory of light?
a) scattering
b) interference
c) diffraction
d) velocity of light in a denser medium is less than the velocity of light in the rarer medium
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d (3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d
Ans: (3)

3. White light reflected from a soap film (Refractive Index = 1.5) has a maxima at 600 nm and
a minima at 450 nm with no minimum in between. Then the thickness of the film is _______
 10-7 m
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans: (3)

4. A cylindrical tube of length 0.2 m and radius R with sugar solution of concentration “C”
produce a rotation of  in the plane of vibration of a plane polarized light. The same sugar
solution is transferred to another tube of length 0.3 m of same radius. The remaining gap is
filled by distilled water. Now the optical rotation produced is
(1)  (2) 2
3

(3) 3
2

(4) 9
4

Ans: (1)

5. Radii of curvature of a converging lens are in the ratio 1 : 2. Its focal length is 6 cm and
refractive index is 1.5. Then its radii of curvature are ____ respectively.
(1) 9 cm and 18 cm (2) 6 cm and 12 cm (3) 3 cm and 6 cm (4) 4.5 cm and 9 cm
Ans: (4)

6. A small oil drop of mass 10-6 kg is hanging in at rest between two plates separated by 1 mm
having a potential difference of 500 V. The charge on the drop is ________ (g = 10 ms-2)
(1) 2  10-9 C (2) 2  10-11 C (3) 2  10-6 C (4) 2  10-8 C
Ans: (2)

7. A uniform electric field in the plane of the paper as shown. Here A, B, C, D are the points on
the circle. V1, V2, V3, V4 are the potentials at those points
respectively. Then
(1) VA = VC, VB = VD
(2) VA = VC, VB > VD
(3) VA > VC, VB > VD
(4) VA = VB, VC = VD
A
E
C
D
B




2
Ans: (None of the option matching)

8. Two metal spheres of radii 0.01 m and 0.02 m are given a charge of 15 mC and 45 mC
respectively. They are then connected by a wire. The final charge on the first sphere is
______  10-3 C
(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 10
Ans: (3)

9. The concentric spheres of radii R and r have positive charges q1 and q2 with equal surface
charge densities. What is the electric potential at their common centre?
(1)
o

(R + r) (2)
o

(R - r) (3)
o








r
1
R
1
(4)
o







r
R
Ans: (1)

10. When an additional charge of 2C is given to a capacitor, energy stored in it is increased by
21%. The original charge of the capacitor is
(1) 30 C (2) 40 C (3) 10 C (4) 20 C
Ans: (4)

11. When a potential difference of 103 V is applied between A and B, a charge of 0.75 mC is
stored in the system of capacitors as shown. The
value of C is (in F)
(1)
2
1
(2) 2
(3) 2.5
(4) 3
Ans: (2)

12. See the diagram. Area of each plate is 2.0 m2 and d = 2  10-3 m. A charge of 8.85  10-8 C
is given to Q. Then the potential of Q becomes
(1) 13 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 6.67 V
(4) 8.825 V
Ans: (3)

13. Three conductors draw currents of 1A, 2A and 3A respectively, when connected in turn across
a battery. If they are connected in series and the combination is connected across the same
battery, the current drawn will be
(1)
7
2
A (2)
7
3
A (3)
7
4
A (4)
7
5
A

Ans: (None of the options matching)
2 F 2 F
2 F
2 F
C F
103 V
P
Q
R
d
2d


14. In the circuit, R1 = R2. The value of E and R1 are _____ (E – EMF, R1 – resistance)
(1) 180 V, 60 
(2) 120 V, 60 
(3) 180 V, 10 
(4) 120 V, 10 
Ans: (Data insufficient)

15. Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio
of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistances is
(1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 15 : 125 (4) 125 : 15 : 1
Ans: (4)

16. For a transformed, the turns ratio is 3 and its efficiency is 0.75. The current flowing in the
primary coil is 2 A and the voltage applied to it is 100 V. Then the voltage and the current
flowing in the secondary coil are _______ respectively.
(1) 150 V, 1.5 A (2) 300 V, 0.5 A (3) 300 V, 1.5 A (4) 150 V, 0.5 A
Ans: (2)

17. A proton and helium nucleus are shot into a magnetic field at right angles to the field with
same kinetic energy. Then the ratio of their radii is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Ans: (1)

18. Two identical circular coils A and B are kept on a horizontal tube side by side without
touching each other. If the current in the coil A increases with time, in response, the coil B
(1) is attracted by A (2) remains stationary (3) is repelled (4) rotates
Ans: (3)

19. In the diagram, I1, I2 are the strength of the currents in the loop and straight conductors
respectively. OA = AB = R. The net magnetic field at the centre O is zero. Then the ratio of
the currents in the loop and the straight conductors is
(1) 
(2) 2
(3)

1
(4)
2
1
Ans: (4)

20. Two tangent galvanometers, which are identical except in their number of turns, are
connected in parallel. The ratio of their resistances of the coils is 1 : 3. If the deflections in
the two tangent galvanometers are 30o and 60o respectively, then the ratio of their number
of turns is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 6
Ans: (None of the options matching)
R1
r = 0 R2
1.5 A
E
O
R
A
R
B
I2
I1
4

21. A charged particle with a velocity 2  103 ms-1 passes undeflected through electric field and
magnetic fields in mutually perpendicular directions. The magnetic field is 1.5 T. The
magnitude of electric field will be
(1) 1.5  103 NC-1 (2) 2  103 NC-1 (3) 3  103 NC-1 (4) 1.33  103 NC-1
Ans: (3)

22. In R-L-C series circuit, the potential differences across each element is 20 V. Now the value
of the resistance alone is doubled, then P.D. across R, L and C respectively.
(1) 20 V, 10 V, 10 V (2) 20 V, 20 V, 20 V (3) 20 V, 40 V, 40 V (4) 10 V, 20 V, 20 V
Ans: (1)

23. A rectangular coil of 100 turns and size 0.1 m  0.05 m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic
field of 0.1 T. If the field drops to 0.05 T in 0.05 second, the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced
in the coil is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0.6 (4) 6
Ans: (No answer)

24. In the circuit diagram, heat produces in R, 2R and 1.5 R are in the ratio of
(1) 4 : 2 : 3
(2) 8 : 4 : 27
(3) 2 : 4 : 3
(4) 27 : 8 : 4
Ans: (2)

25. A series combination of resistor (R), capacitor (C) is connected to an A.C. source angular
frequency ‘’. Keeping the voltage same, if the frequency is changed to /3, the current
becomes half of the original current. Then the ratio of the capacitive reactance and resistance
at the former frequency is
(1) 0.6 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 6
Ans: (1)

26. Pick out the correct statement from the following:
(1) Mercury vapour lamp produces line emission spectrum.
(2) Oil flame produces line emission spectrum
(3) Band spectrum helps us to study molecular structure
(4) Sunlight spectrum is an example for line absorption spectrum
Ans: (1, 3, 4)

27. Light emitted during the deexcitation of electron from n = 3 to n = 2, when incident on a
metal, photoelectrons are just emitted from that metal. In which of the following
deexcitations photoelectric effect is not possible?
(1) From n = 2 to n = 1 (2) From n = 3 to n = 1
(3) From n = 5 to n = 2 (4) From n = 4 to n = 3
Ans: (4)
R
1.5 R
2 R
I1
I2
I I
5

28. The additional energy that should be given to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength
from 1 nm to 0.5 nm is
(1) 2 times the initial kinetic energy (2) 3 times the initial kinetic energy
(3) 0.5 times the initial kinetic energy (4) 4 times the initial kinetic energy
Ans: (2)

29. The ionisation energy of an electron in the ground state of helium atom is 24.6 eV. The
energy required to remove both the electron is
(1) 51.8 eV (2) 79 eV (3) 38.2 eV (4) 49.2 eV
Ans: (2)

30. ___________________3E
___________________5E/3
___________________E
The figure shows the energy level of certain atom. When the electron deexcites from 3E to E,
an electromagnetic wave of wavelength  is emitted. What is the wavelength of the
electromagnetic wave emitted when the electron deexcites from
3
5E
to E?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4)
5
3
Ans: (1)

31. Maximum velocity of the photoelectron emitted by a metal is 1.8 x 106 ms-1. Take the value
of specific charge of the electron is 1.8 x 1011 C kg-1. Then the stopping potential in volt is
1) 1 2) 3 3) 9 4) 6
Ans: (3)

32. 1 and 2 are used to illuminate the slits. 1 and 2 are the corresponding fringe widths. The
wavelength 1 can produce photoelectric effect when incident on a metal. But the
wavelength 2 cannot produce photoelectric effect. The correct relation between 1 and 2 is
1) 1 < 2 2) 1 = 2 3) 1 > 2 4) 1  2
Ans: (1)

33. Pick out the correct statements from the following:
a) Electron emission during B-decay is always accompanied by neutrino.
b) Nuclear force is charge independent.
c) Fusion is the chief source of stellar energy.
1) (a), (b) correct 2) (a), (c) are correct 3) only (a) is correct 4) (b), (c) are correct
Ans: (4)

34. A nucleus ZXA emits an -particle with velocity v. The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus
is
1)
4v
A  4
2)
A 4
4v

3) v 4)
4
v
Ans: (2)

35. A radioactive substance emits 100 beta particles in the first 2 seconds and 50 beta particles
in the next 2 seconds. The mean life of the sample is
1) 4 seconds 2) 2 seconds 3)
0.693
2
seconds 4) 2 x 0.693 seconds
Ans: (3)
6

36. In which of the following statements, the obtained impure semiconductor is of p-type?
1) Germanium is doped with bismuth 2) Silicon is doped with antimony
3) Germanium is doped with gallium 4) Silicon is doped with phosphorus
Ans: (3)

37. The width of the depletion region in a P-N junction diode is
1) increased by reverse bias 2) increased by forward bias
3) decreased by reverse bias 4) independent of the bias voltage
Ans: (1)

38. When the transistor is used as an amplifier
1) Emitter-base junction must be reverse biased, Collector-base junction must be forward
biased.
2) Emitter-base junction must be forward biased, Collector-base junction must be forward
biased.
3) Emitter-base junction must be reverse biased, Collector-base junction must be reverse
biased.
4) Emitter-base junction must be forward biased, Collector-base junction must be reverse
biased.
Ans: (4)

39. Which of the following is not made by quarks?
1) Neutron 2) Positron 3) Proton 4) -meson
Ans: (2)

40. Which one of the following is NOT correct?
1) In forward biased condition diode conducts.
2) If the packing fraction is negative, the element is stable.
3) Binding energy is the energy equivalent to mass defect.
4) Radioactive element can undergo spontaneous fission.
Ans: (4)

41. The output of an OR gate is connected to both the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination
will serve as
1) AND gate 2) NOT gate 3) NAND gate 4) NOR gate
Ans: (4)

42. A and B are the two radioactive elements. The mixture of these elements show a total
activity of 1200 disintergrations/minute. The half life of A is 1 day and that of B is 2 days.
What will be the total activity after 4 days? Given: The initial number of atoms in A and B
are equal.
1) 200 dis/min 2) 250 dis/min 3) 500 dis/min 4) 150 dis/min
Ans: (4)

43. The binding energy/ nucleon of deuteron (1H2) and the helium atom (2He4) are 1.1 MeV and
7 MeV respectively. If the two deuteron atoms fuse to form a single helium atom, then the
energy released is
1) 26.9 MeV 2) 25.8 MeV 3) 23.6 MeV 4) 12.9 MeV
Ans: (3)

44. Which one of the following is NOT correct?
1) Dimensional formula of thermal conductivity (K) is M1L1T-3K-1
2) Dimensional formula of potential (V) is M1L2T3A-1
3) Dimensional formula of permeability of free space (0) is M1L1T-2A-2
4) Dimensional formula of RC is M0L0T-1
Ans: (2 & 4)
7

45. In a lift moving up with an acceleration of 5 ms-2, a ball is dropped from a height of 1.25 m.
The time taken by the ball to reach the floor of the lift is ………… (nearly) (g = 10 ms-2)
1) 0.3 second 2) 0.2 second 3) 0.16 second 4) 0.4 second
Ans: (4)

46. A gun fires a small bullet with kinetic energy K. Then kinetic energy of the gun while
recoiling is
a) K b) more than K c) less than K d) K
Ans: (3)

47. From a fixed support, two small identical spheres are suspended by means of strings of
length 1 m each. They are pulled aside as shown and then released. B is the mean position.
Then the two spheres collide.
1) at B after 0.25 second
2) at B after 0.5 second
3) on the right side of B after some time
4) on the right side of B when the strings are inclined at 150 with B
Ans: (2)

48. A truck accelerates from speed v to 2v. Work done in during this is
1) three times as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.
2) same as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.
3) four times as the work den in accelerating it from rest to v.
4) less then the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.
Ans: (1)

49. Earth is moving around the Sun in elliptical orbit as shown. The ratio of OB and OA is R.
Then the ratio of Earth at A and B is
1) R-1 2) R
3) R 4) R2/3
Ans: (Question incomplete)

50. A projectile is projected at 10 ms-1 by making at an angle 600 to the horizontal. After some
time its velocity makes an angle of 300 to the horizontal. Its speed at this instant is
1)
3
10
2) 10 3 3)
3
5
4) 5 3
Ans: (1)

51. For which combination of working temperatures of source and sink, the efficiency of
Carnot’s heat engine is maximum?
1) 600 K, 400 K 2) 400 K, 200 K 3) 500 K, 300 K 4) 300 K, 100 K
Ans: (4)

52. A solid cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R made of a material of thermal
conductivity K2. The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different
temperatures. Then there is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the system is
in steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of the system is
1) K1 + K2 2)
1 2
1 2
K
K K

3)
4
2K1  K2
4)
4
K1  3K2
Ans: (4)

Sun
A
B
o
o
B
300
600
8

53. Two stars A and B radiate maximum energy at the wavelengths of 360 nm and 480 nm
respectively. Then the ratio of the surface temperatures of A and B is
1) 3 : 4 2) 81 : 256 3) 4 : 3 4) 256 : 81
Ans: (3)

54. Two solids P and Q float in water. It is observed that P floats with half of its volume
immersed and Q floats with
rd
3
2
of its volume is immersed. The ratio of densities of P and Q
is
1) 4/3 2) 3/4 3) 2/3 4) 3/2
Ans: (2)

55. The equation of a transverse wave is given by y = 0.05 sin  (2t – 0.02 x), where x, y are
in metre and t is in second. The minimum distance of separation between two particles
which are in phase and the wave velocity are respectively ………..
1) 50 m. 50 ms-1 2) 100 m. 100 ms-1 3) 50 m. 100 ms-1 4) 100 m. 50 ms-1
Ans: (2)

56. The frequency of the second overtone of the open pipe is equal to the frequency of the first
overtone of the closed pipe. The ratio of the lengths of the open pipe and the closed pipe is
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 4) 3 : 1
Ans: (1)

57. A person with vibrating tuning fork of frequency 338 Hz is moving towards a vertical wall
with a speed of 2 ms-1. Velocity of sound in air is 340 ms-1. The number of beats heard by
that person per second is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
Ans: (2)

58. Pick out the WRONG statement from the following:
1) Lateral shift increases as the angle of incidence increases.
2) Lateral shift increases as the value of refractive index increases
3) Normal shift decreases as the value of refractive index increases
4) Both normal shift and lateral shift are directly proportional to the thickness of the
medium.
Ans: (2)

59. The refraction through the prisms are as shown. Pick out the WRONG statement from the
following. Path of the light ray in
1) a is correct if n2 > n1 and n2 > n3 2) b is correct if n1 = n2 and n2 > n3
3) c is correct if n2 < n1 and n2 = n3 4) d is correct if n1 > n2 and n2 < n3
Ans: (1)

60. The distance between an object and its real image produced by a converging lens is 0.72
m. The magnification is 2. What will be the magnification when the object is moved by 0.04
m towards the lens?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6’
Ans: (2)

For my Friends ,, BY Samheel
source: www.expertclasses.org

CHEMISTRY 2013 ANSWER KEY (MOBILE VIEW ALSO )

FOR OPENING THROUGH  CELL

KCET/CET ANSWER KEY  ---  CHEMISTRY 2013


CET – CHEMISTRY – 2013

VERSION CODE: B – 1

1. IUPAC name of is CH3CHCH2CHCH3
(1) 4-hydroxy 1 methyl pentanoic acid (2) 4-hydroxy 2 methyl pentanoic acid
(3) 2-hydroxy 4 methyl pentanoic acid (4) 2-hydroxy 2 methyl pentanoic acid
Ans: (2)

2. Alkali metals have negative reduction potential and hence they behave as
(1) Oxidising agents (2) Lewis bases (3) Reducing agents (4) Electrolytes
Ans: (3)

3. Which of the following gases has the highest value of RMS – velocity at 298 K?
(1) CH4 (2) CO (3) Cl2 (4) CO2
Ans: (1)

4. Cycloalkane formed when 1, 4-dibromopentane is heated with Sodium is
(1) Methyl cyclobutane (2) Cyclopentane
(3) Cyclobutane (4) Methyl cyclopentane
Ans: (2)

5. In the reaction, 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + H2O2 → Fe2 (SO4)3 + 2H2O, the oxidizing agent is
(1) FeSO4 (2) H2SO4
(3) H2O2 (4) Both H2SO4 and H2O2
Ans: (3)

6. Given Thermochemical equation, 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O(ℓ) ; Δ H = -571.6 kJ. Heat of decomposition of water is
(1) -571.6 kJ (2) +571.6 kJ (3) -1143.2 kJ (4) +285.8 kJ
Ans: (4)

7. In Buna-S, the symbol “Bu” stands for
(1) 1-Butene (2) n-Butene (3) 2-Butene (4) Butadiene
Ans: (4)

8. The electronic configuration of Cu2+ ion is
(1) [Ar] 3d8 4s1 (2) [Ar] 3d9 4so (3) [Ar] 3d7 4s2 (4) [Ar] 3d8 4so
Ans: (2)

9. The yield of the products in the reaction, A2 (g) + 2B(g) ⇌ C (g) + Q. kJ would be higher at
(1) High temperature and high pressure (2) High temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure (4) Low temperature and low pressure
Ans: (3)

10. Mesomeric effect involves
(1) delocalisation of π - electrons (2) delocalisation of σ - electrons
(3) partial displacement of electrons (4) delocalisation of π and σ electrons
Ans: (1)

11. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) K+, Cl-, Mg2+, Sc3+ (2) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F –
(3) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl - (4) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl –
Ans: (3)

12. Adsorption theory is applicable for
(1) Homogeneous catalysis (2) Heterogeneous catalysis
(3) Autocatalysis (4) Induced catalysis
Ans: (2)

13. Methane can be converted into Ethane by the reactions
(1) Chlorination followed by the reaction with alcoholic KOH
(2) Chlorination followed by the reaction with aqueous KOH
(3) Chlorination followed by Wurtz reaction
(4) Chlorination followed by decarboxylation
Ans: (3)

14. Intramolecular Hydrogen bonding is formed in
(1) H2O (2) Salicyladehyde (3) NH3 (4) Benzophenone
Ans: (2)

15. If 50% of the reactant is converted into a product in a first order reaction in 25 minutes, how much of it would react in 100 minutes?
(1) 93.75% (2) 87.5% (3) 75% (4) 100%
Ans: (1)

16. The number of optical isomers of the compound CH3 – CHBr – CHBr – COOH is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans: (4)

17. When limestone is heated, CO2 is given off. The metallurgical operation is
(1) Smelting (2) Reduction (3) Calcination (4) Roasting
Ans: (3)

18. The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of
(1) increase in number of activated molecules
(2) increase in energy of activation
(3) decrease in energy of activation
(4) increase in the number of effective collisions
Ans: (1, 3 & 4)

19. Meso compounds do not show optical activity because
(1) they do not contain chiral carbon atoms
(2) they have non-super imposable mirror images
(3) they contain plane of symmetry
(4) they do not contain plane of symmetry
Ans: (3)

20. When formic acid is heated with concentrated H2SO4, the gas evolved is
(1) only CO2 (2) only ‘CO’
(3) a mixture of ‘CO’ and ‘CO2’ (4) a mixture of ‘SO2’ and ‘CO2’
Ans: (2)

21. Temperature coefficient of a reaction is ‘2’. When temperature is increased from 30oC to 90oC, the rate of reaction is increased by
(1) 60 times (2) 64 times (3) 150 times (4) 400 times
Ans: (2)

22. Conversion of benzene to acetophenone can be brought by
(1) Wurtz reaction (2) Wurtz-Fittig’s reaction
(3) Friedel Crafts alkylation (4) Friedel Crafts acylation
Ans: (4)

23. Excess of PCl5 reacts with concentrated H2SO4 giving
(1) Chlorosulphuric acid (2) Sulphurous acid
(3) Sulphury chloride (4) Thionyl chloride
Ans: (3)

24. An example for a neutral buffer is
(1) Ammonium hydroxide and Ammonium chloride
(2) Acetic acid and Sodium acetate
(3) Acetic acid and Ammonium hydroxide
(4) Citric acid and Sodium citrate
Ans: (3)

25. Least energetic conformation of cyclohexane is
(1) Chain conformation (2) Boat conformation
(3) Cis conformation (4) E-z form
Ans: (1)

26. Which of the following is employed in flash tubes in photograph?
(1) Ar (2) Ne (3) Kr (4) Xe
Ans: (4)

27. Conjugate base of H2PO is −
4
(1) HPO (2) HPO (3) H−4−243PO4 (4) PO −34
Ans: (2)


28. An alkyl bromide (X) reacts with Sodium in ether to form 4, 5-diethyl octane, the compound ‘X’ is
(1) CH3(CH2)3Br (2) CH3(CH2)5Br
(3) CH3(CH2)3CH(Br)CH3 (4) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH(Br) – CH2 – CH3
Ans: (4)

29. Which one of the following shows highest magnetic moment?
(1) Fe2+ (2) CO2+ (3) Cr3+ (4) Ni2+
Ans: (1)

30. The emf of a galvanic cell constituted with the electrodes Zn2+ |Zn (-0.76 V) and
Fe2+|Fe(-0.41V) is
(1) -0.35 V (2) +1.17 V (3) +0.35 V (4) -1.17 V
Ans: (3)

31. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Reactants
Products
I.
RX + AgOH(aq)
RH
II.
RX + AgCN(alco)
RNC
III.
RX + KCN(alco)
RNC
IV.
RX + Na(ether)
R-R
1) I alone 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) II and IV
Ans: (4)

32. In a transition series, with increase in atomic-number, the paramagnetism
1) increases gradually
2) decreases gradually
3) first increases to a maximum and then decreases
4) first decreases to a minimum and then increases
Ans: (3)

33. Identify a species which is ‘NOT’ a Bronsted acid but a Lewis acid.
1) BF3 2) H3+O 3) NH3 4) HCl
Ans: (1)

34. The compound formed when calcium acetate and calcium formate is dray distilled.
1) Acetone 2) Acetaldehyde 3) Benzaldehyde 4) Acetophenone
Ans: (2)

35. d2sp3 hybridisation of the atomic orbitals gives
1) Square planar structure 2) Triangular structure
3) Tetrahedral structure 4) Octahedral structure
Ans: (4)

36. The pH of 10-8 M HCl solution is
1) 8 2) 6.9586 3) More than 8 4) Slightly more than 7
Ans: (2)

37. Which of the following is strongly acidic?
1) Phenol 2) o-cresol 3) p-nitrophenol 4) p-cresol
Ans: (3)

38. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when
1) it is a small molecule 2) it has an unshared electron pair
3) it is a negatively charged ion 4) it is a positively charge ion
Ans: (2)

39. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a colligative property?
1) Elevation in boiling point 2) Depression in freezing point
3) Osmotic pressure 4) Lowering of vapour pressure
Ans: (4)

40. Acetone and Propanal are
1) Functional isomers 2) Position isomers
3) Geometrical isomers 4) Optical isomers
Ans: (1)

41. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
1) H2+ 2) He2+ 3) O2 4) N2
Ans: (4)

42. 3 gms of urea is dissolved in 45 gms of H2O. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is
1) 0.05 2) 0.04 3) 0.02 4) 0.01
Ans: (3)

43. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
1) Tollen’s reagent 2) Fehling’s solution
3) 2-4-dinitrohenyl hydrazine 4) Semicarbazide
Ans: (2)

44. Metallic luster is due to
1) high density of metals 2) high polish on the surface of metals
3) reflection of light by mobile electrons 4) chemical inertness of metals
Ans: (3)

45. Which of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?
1) 0.01 M urea 2) 0.01 M KNO3 3) 0.01 M Na2SO4 4) 0.015M C6H12O6
Ans: (3)

46. Which one of the following gives amine on heating with amide?
1) Br2 in aqueous KOH 2) Br2 on alcoholic KOH
3) Cl2 in Sodium 4) Sodium in Ether
Ans: (1)

47. The number of antibonding electrons present in O2- molecular ion is
1) 8 2) 6 3) 5 4) 4
Ans: (3)

48. The process is spontaneous at the given temperature, if
1) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is –ve 2) ΔH is –ve and ΔS is +ve
3) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is +ve 4) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is equal to zero
Ans: (2)

49. Glucose when reduced with HI and Red Phosphorus gives
1) n-hexane 2) n-heptane 3) n-pentane 4) n-octane
Ans: (1)

50. The stability of a Lyophobic colloid is due to
1) Adsorption of covalent molecules on the colloid
2) The size of the particles
3) The charge on the particles
4) Tyndall effect
Ans: (1)

51. Oils are liquids at room temperature since they contain higher percentage of
1) Oleates 2)Palmitates 3) Stearates 4) Myristates
Ans: (1)

52. Which of the following cations will have minium flocculation value for arsenic sulphide sol?
1) Na+ 2) Mg2+ 3) Ca2+ 4) Al3+
Ans: (4)

53. The value of entropy of solar system is
1) increasing 2) decreasing 3) constant 4) zero
Ans: (1)

54. In face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
1) 6 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
Ans: (4)

55. The number of disulphide linkages present in Insulin are
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
Ans: (2)

56. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of
1) Al 2) Ge 3) Cu 4) Ag
Ans: (2)

57. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018 gm is
1) 6.022 x 1026 2) 6.022 x 1023 3) 6.022 x 1019 4) 6.022 x 1020
Ans: (4)

58. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and its molecular mass is 90, the molecular formula of the compound is
1) C3H6O3 2) C2H4O2 3) C6H12O6 4) CH2O
Ans: (1)

59. Hybridised states of carbon in Graphite and Diamond are respectively
1) sp3, sp3 2) sp3, sp2 3) sp2, sp2 4) sp2, sp3
Ans: (4)

60. The mass of 112 cm3 of NH3 gas at STP is
1) 0.085 g 2) 0.850 g 3) 8.500 g 4) 80.500 g
Ans: (1)


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