FOR OPENING THROUGH CELL
KCET/CET ANSWER KEY --- CHEMISTRY 2013
CET – CHEMISTRY – 2013
VERSION CODE: B – 1
1. IUPAC name of is CH3CHCH2CHCH3
(1) 4-hydroxy 1 methyl pentanoic acid (2) 4-hydroxy 2 methyl pentanoic acid
(3) 2-hydroxy 4 methyl pentanoic acid (4) 2-hydroxy 2 methyl pentanoic acid
Ans: (2)
2. Alkali metals have negative reduction potential and hence they behave as
(1) Oxidising agents (2) Lewis bases (3) Reducing agents (4) Electrolytes
Ans: (3)
3. Which of the following gases has the highest value of RMS – velocity at 298 K?
(1) CH4 (2) CO (3) Cl2 (4) CO2
Ans: (1)
4. Cycloalkane formed when 1, 4-dibromopentane is heated with Sodium is
(1) Methyl cyclobutane (2) Cyclopentane
(3) Cyclobutane (4) Methyl cyclopentane
Ans: (2)
5. In the reaction, 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + H2O2 → Fe2 (SO4)3 + 2H2O, the oxidizing agent is
(1) FeSO4 (2) H2SO4
(3) H2O2 (4) Both H2SO4 and H2O2
Ans: (3)
6. Given Thermochemical equation, 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O(ℓ) ; Δ H = -571.6 kJ. Heat of decomposition of water is
(1) -571.6 kJ (2) +571.6 kJ (3) -1143.2 kJ (4) +285.8 kJ
Ans: (4)
7. In Buna-S, the symbol “Bu” stands for
(1) 1-Butene (2) n-Butene (3) 2-Butene (4) Butadiene
Ans: (4)
8. The electronic configuration of Cu2+ ion is
(1) [Ar] 3d8 4s1 (2) [Ar] 3d9 4so (3) [Ar] 3d7 4s2 (4) [Ar] 3d8 4so
Ans: (2)
9. The yield of the products in the reaction, A2 (g) + 2B(g) ⇌ C (g) + Q. kJ would be higher at
(1) High temperature and high pressure (2) High temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure (4) Low temperature and low pressure
Ans: (3)
10. Mesomeric effect involves
(1) delocalisation of π - electrons (2) delocalisation of σ - electrons
(3) partial displacement of electrons (4) delocalisation of π and σ electrons
Ans: (1)
11. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) K+, Cl-, Mg2+, Sc3+ (2) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F –
(3) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl - (4) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl –
Ans: (3)
12. Adsorption theory is applicable for
(1) Homogeneous catalysis (2) Heterogeneous catalysis
(3) Autocatalysis (4) Induced catalysis
Ans: (2)
13. Methane can be converted into Ethane by the reactions
(1) Chlorination followed by the reaction with alcoholic KOH
(2) Chlorination followed by the reaction with aqueous KOH
(3) Chlorination followed by Wurtz reaction
(4) Chlorination followed by decarboxylation
Ans: (3)
14. Intramolecular Hydrogen bonding is formed in
(1) H2O (2) Salicyladehyde (3) NH3 (4) Benzophenone
Ans: (2)
15. If 50% of the reactant is converted into a product in a first order reaction in 25 minutes, how much of it would react in 100 minutes?
(1) 93.75% (2) 87.5% (3) 75% (4) 100%
Ans: (1)
16. The number of optical isomers of the compound CH3 – CHBr – CHBr – COOH is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans: (4)
17. When limestone is heated, CO2 is given off. The metallurgical operation is
(1) Smelting (2) Reduction (3) Calcination (4) Roasting
Ans: (3)
18. The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of
(1) increase in number of activated molecules
(2) increase in energy of activation
(3) decrease in energy of activation
(4) increase in the number of effective collisions
Ans: (1, 3 & 4)
19. Meso compounds do not show optical activity because
(1) they do not contain chiral carbon atoms
(2) they have non-super imposable mirror images
(3) they contain plane of symmetry
(4) they do not contain plane of symmetry
Ans: (3)
20. When formic acid is heated with concentrated H2SO4, the gas evolved is
(1) only CO2 (2) only ‘CO’
(3) a mixture of ‘CO’ and ‘CO2’ (4) a mixture of ‘SO2’ and ‘CO2’
Ans: (2)
21. Temperature coefficient of a reaction is ‘2’. When temperature is increased from 30oC to 90oC, the rate of reaction is increased by
(1) 60 times (2) 64 times (3) 150 times (4) 400 times
Ans: (2)
22. Conversion of benzene to acetophenone can be brought by
(1) Wurtz reaction (2) Wurtz-Fittig’s reaction
(3) Friedel Crafts alkylation (4) Friedel Crafts acylation
Ans: (4)
23. Excess of PCl5 reacts with concentrated H2SO4 giving
(1) Chlorosulphuric acid (2) Sulphurous acid
(3) Sulphury chloride (4) Thionyl chloride
Ans: (3)
24. An example for a neutral buffer is
(1) Ammonium hydroxide and Ammonium chloride
(2) Acetic acid and Sodium acetate
(3) Acetic acid and Ammonium hydroxide
(4) Citric acid and Sodium citrate
Ans: (3)
25. Least energetic conformation of cyclohexane is
(1) Chain conformation (2) Boat conformation
(3) Cis conformation (4) E-z form
Ans: (1)
26. Which of the following is employed in flash tubes in photograph?
(1) Ar (2) Ne (3) Kr (4) Xe
Ans: (4)
27. Conjugate base of H2PO is −
4
(1) HPO (2) HPO (3) H−4−243PO4 (4) PO −34
Ans: (2)
28. An alkyl bromide (X) reacts with Sodium in ether to form 4, 5-diethyl octane, the compound ‘X’ is
(1) CH3(CH2)3Br (2) CH3(CH2)5Br
(3) CH3(CH2)3CH(Br)CH3 (4) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH(Br) – CH2 – CH3
Ans: (4)
29. Which one of the following shows highest magnetic moment?
(1) Fe2+ (2) CO2+ (3) Cr3+ (4) Ni2+
Ans: (1)
30. The emf of a galvanic cell constituted with the electrodes Zn2+ |Zn (-0.76 V) and
Fe2+|Fe(-0.41V) is
(1) -0.35 V (2) +1.17 V (3) +0.35 V (4) -1.17 V
Ans: (3)
31. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Reactants
Products
I.
RX + AgOH(aq)
RH
II.
RX + AgCN(alco)
RNC
III.
RX + KCN(alco)
RNC
IV.
RX + Na(ether)
R-R
1) I alone 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) II and IV
Ans: (4)
32. In a transition series, with increase in atomic-number, the paramagnetism
1) increases gradually
2) decreases gradually
3) first increases to a maximum and then decreases
4) first decreases to a minimum and then increases
Ans: (3)
33. Identify a species which is ‘NOT’ a Bronsted acid but a Lewis acid.
1) BF3 2) H3+O 3) NH3 4) HCl
Ans: (1)
34. The compound formed when calcium acetate and calcium formate is dray distilled.
1) Acetone 2) Acetaldehyde 3) Benzaldehyde 4) Acetophenone
Ans: (2)
35. d2sp3 hybridisation of the atomic orbitals gives
1) Square planar structure 2) Triangular structure
3) Tetrahedral structure 4) Octahedral structure
Ans: (4)
36. The pH of 10-8 M HCl solution is
1) 8 2) 6.9586 3) More than 8 4) Slightly more than 7
Ans: (2)
37. Which of the following is strongly acidic?
1) Phenol 2) o-cresol 3) p-nitrophenol 4) p-cresol
Ans: (3)
38. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when
1) it is a small molecule 2) it has an unshared electron pair
3) it is a negatively charged ion 4) it is a positively charge ion
Ans: (2)
39. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a colligative property?
1) Elevation in boiling point 2) Depression in freezing point
3) Osmotic pressure 4) Lowering of vapour pressure
Ans: (4)
40. Acetone and Propanal are
1) Functional isomers 2) Position isomers
3) Geometrical isomers 4) Optical isomers
Ans: (1)
41. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
1) H2+ 2) He2+ 3) O2 4) N2
Ans: (4)
42. 3 gms of urea is dissolved in 45 gms of H2O. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is
1) 0.05 2) 0.04 3) 0.02 4) 0.01
Ans: (3)
43. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
1) Tollen’s reagent 2) Fehling’s solution
3) 2-4-dinitrohenyl hydrazine 4) Semicarbazide
Ans: (2)
44. Metallic luster is due to
1) high density of metals 2) high polish on the surface of metals
3) reflection of light by mobile electrons 4) chemical inertness of metals
Ans: (3)
45. Which of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?
1) 0.01 M urea 2) 0.01 M KNO3 3) 0.01 M Na2SO4 4) 0.015M C6H12O6
Ans: (3)
46. Which one of the following gives amine on heating with amide?
1) Br2 in aqueous KOH 2) Br2 on alcoholic KOH
3) Cl2 in Sodium 4) Sodium in Ether
Ans: (1)
47. The number of antibonding electrons present in O2- molecular ion is
1) 8 2) 6 3) 5 4) 4
Ans: (3)
48. The process is spontaneous at the given temperature, if
1) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is –ve 2) ΔH is –ve and ΔS is +ve
3) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is +ve 4) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is equal to zero
Ans: (2)
49. Glucose when reduced with HI and Red Phosphorus gives
1) n-hexane 2) n-heptane 3) n-pentane 4) n-octane
Ans: (1)
50. The stability of a Lyophobic colloid is due to
1) Adsorption of covalent molecules on the colloid
2) The size of the particles
3) The charge on the particles
4) Tyndall effect
Ans: (1)
51. Oils are liquids at room temperature since they contain higher percentage of
1) Oleates 2)Palmitates 3) Stearates 4) Myristates
Ans: (1)
52. Which of the following cations will have minium flocculation value for arsenic sulphide sol?
1) Na+ 2) Mg2+ 3) Ca2+ 4) Al3+
Ans: (4)
53. The value of entropy of solar system is
1) increasing 2) decreasing 3) constant 4) zero
Ans: (1)
54. In face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
1) 6 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
Ans: (4)
55. The number of disulphide linkages present in Insulin are
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
Ans: (2)
56. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of
1) Al 2) Ge 3) Cu 4) Ag
Ans: (2)
57. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018 gm is
1) 6.022 x 1026 2) 6.022 x 1023 3) 6.022 x 1019 4) 6.022 x 1020
Ans: (4)
58. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and its molecular mass is 90, the molecular formula of the compound is
1) C3H6O3 2) C2H4O2 3) C6H12O6 4) CH2O
Ans: (1)
59. Hybridised states of carbon in Graphite and Diamond are respectively
1) sp3, sp3 2) sp3, sp2 3) sp2, sp2 4) sp2, sp3
Ans: (4)
60. The mass of 112 cm3 of NH3 gas at STP is
1) 0.085 g 2) 0.850 g 3) 8.500 g 4) 80.500 g
Ans: (1)
For my Friends... By Samheel
Source: www.expertclasses.org
KCET/CET ANSWER KEY --- CHEMISTRY 2013
CET – CHEMISTRY – 2013
VERSION CODE: B – 1
1. IUPAC name of is CH3CHCH2CHCH3
(1) 4-hydroxy 1 methyl pentanoic acid (2) 4-hydroxy 2 methyl pentanoic acid
(3) 2-hydroxy 4 methyl pentanoic acid (4) 2-hydroxy 2 methyl pentanoic acid
Ans: (2)
2. Alkali metals have negative reduction potential and hence they behave as
(1) Oxidising agents (2) Lewis bases (3) Reducing agents (4) Electrolytes
Ans: (3)
3. Which of the following gases has the highest value of RMS – velocity at 298 K?
(1) CH4 (2) CO (3) Cl2 (4) CO2
Ans: (1)
4. Cycloalkane formed when 1, 4-dibromopentane is heated with Sodium is
(1) Methyl cyclobutane (2) Cyclopentane
(3) Cyclobutane (4) Methyl cyclopentane
Ans: (2)
5. In the reaction, 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + H2O2 → Fe2 (SO4)3 + 2H2O, the oxidizing agent is
(1) FeSO4 (2) H2SO4
(3) H2O2 (4) Both H2SO4 and H2O2
Ans: (3)
6. Given Thermochemical equation, 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O(ℓ) ; Δ H = -571.6 kJ. Heat of decomposition of water is
(1) -571.6 kJ (2) +571.6 kJ (3) -1143.2 kJ (4) +285.8 kJ
Ans: (4)
7. In Buna-S, the symbol “Bu” stands for
(1) 1-Butene (2) n-Butene (3) 2-Butene (4) Butadiene
Ans: (4)
8. The electronic configuration of Cu2+ ion is
(1) [Ar] 3d8 4s1 (2) [Ar] 3d9 4so (3) [Ar] 3d7 4s2 (4) [Ar] 3d8 4so
Ans: (2)
9. The yield of the products in the reaction, A2 (g) + 2B(g) ⇌ C (g) + Q. kJ would be higher at
(1) High temperature and high pressure (2) High temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure (4) Low temperature and low pressure
Ans: (3)
10. Mesomeric effect involves
(1) delocalisation of π - electrons (2) delocalisation of σ - electrons
(3) partial displacement of electrons (4) delocalisation of π and σ electrons
Ans: (1)
11. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) K+, Cl-, Mg2+, Sc3+ (2) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F –
(3) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl - (4) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl –
Ans: (3)
12. Adsorption theory is applicable for
(1) Homogeneous catalysis (2) Heterogeneous catalysis
(3) Autocatalysis (4) Induced catalysis
Ans: (2)
13. Methane can be converted into Ethane by the reactions
(1) Chlorination followed by the reaction with alcoholic KOH
(2) Chlorination followed by the reaction with aqueous KOH
(3) Chlorination followed by Wurtz reaction
(4) Chlorination followed by decarboxylation
Ans: (3)
14. Intramolecular Hydrogen bonding is formed in
(1) H2O (2) Salicyladehyde (3) NH3 (4) Benzophenone
Ans: (2)
15. If 50% of the reactant is converted into a product in a first order reaction in 25 minutes, how much of it would react in 100 minutes?
(1) 93.75% (2) 87.5% (3) 75% (4) 100%
Ans: (1)
16. The number of optical isomers of the compound CH3 – CHBr – CHBr – COOH is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans: (4)
17. When limestone is heated, CO2 is given off. The metallurgical operation is
(1) Smelting (2) Reduction (3) Calcination (4) Roasting
Ans: (3)
18. The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of
(1) increase in number of activated molecules
(2) increase in energy of activation
(3) decrease in energy of activation
(4) increase in the number of effective collisions
Ans: (1, 3 & 4)
19. Meso compounds do not show optical activity because
(1) they do not contain chiral carbon atoms
(2) they have non-super imposable mirror images
(3) they contain plane of symmetry
(4) they do not contain plane of symmetry
Ans: (3)
20. When formic acid is heated with concentrated H2SO4, the gas evolved is
(1) only CO2 (2) only ‘CO’
(3) a mixture of ‘CO’ and ‘CO2’ (4) a mixture of ‘SO2’ and ‘CO2’
Ans: (2)
21. Temperature coefficient of a reaction is ‘2’. When temperature is increased from 30oC to 90oC, the rate of reaction is increased by
(1) 60 times (2) 64 times (3) 150 times (4) 400 times
Ans: (2)
22. Conversion of benzene to acetophenone can be brought by
(1) Wurtz reaction (2) Wurtz-Fittig’s reaction
(3) Friedel Crafts alkylation (4) Friedel Crafts acylation
Ans: (4)
23. Excess of PCl5 reacts with concentrated H2SO4 giving
(1) Chlorosulphuric acid (2) Sulphurous acid
(3) Sulphury chloride (4) Thionyl chloride
Ans: (3)
24. An example for a neutral buffer is
(1) Ammonium hydroxide and Ammonium chloride
(2) Acetic acid and Sodium acetate
(3) Acetic acid and Ammonium hydroxide
(4) Citric acid and Sodium citrate
Ans: (3)
25. Least energetic conformation of cyclohexane is
(1) Chain conformation (2) Boat conformation
(3) Cis conformation (4) E-z form
Ans: (1)
26. Which of the following is employed in flash tubes in photograph?
(1) Ar (2) Ne (3) Kr (4) Xe
Ans: (4)
27. Conjugate base of H2PO is −
4
(1) HPO (2) HPO (3) H−4−243PO4 (4) PO −34
Ans: (2)
28. An alkyl bromide (X) reacts with Sodium in ether to form 4, 5-diethyl octane, the compound ‘X’ is
(1) CH3(CH2)3Br (2) CH3(CH2)5Br
(3) CH3(CH2)3CH(Br)CH3 (4) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH(Br) – CH2 – CH3
Ans: (4)
29. Which one of the following shows highest magnetic moment?
(1) Fe2+ (2) CO2+ (3) Cr3+ (4) Ni2+
Ans: (1)
30. The emf of a galvanic cell constituted with the electrodes Zn2+ |Zn (-0.76 V) and
Fe2+|Fe(-0.41V) is
(1) -0.35 V (2) +1.17 V (3) +0.35 V (4) -1.17 V
Ans: (3)
31. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Reactants
Products
I.
RX + AgOH(aq)
RH
II.
RX + AgCN(alco)
RNC
III.
RX + KCN(alco)
RNC
IV.
RX + Na(ether)
R-R
1) I alone 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) II and IV
Ans: (4)
32. In a transition series, with increase in atomic-number, the paramagnetism
1) increases gradually
2) decreases gradually
3) first increases to a maximum and then decreases
4) first decreases to a minimum and then increases
Ans: (3)
33. Identify a species which is ‘NOT’ a Bronsted acid but a Lewis acid.
1) BF3 2) H3+O 3) NH3 4) HCl
Ans: (1)
34. The compound formed when calcium acetate and calcium formate is dray distilled.
1) Acetone 2) Acetaldehyde 3) Benzaldehyde 4) Acetophenone
Ans: (2)
35. d2sp3 hybridisation of the atomic orbitals gives
1) Square planar structure 2) Triangular structure
3) Tetrahedral structure 4) Octahedral structure
Ans: (4)
36. The pH of 10-8 M HCl solution is
1) 8 2) 6.9586 3) More than 8 4) Slightly more than 7
Ans: (2)
37. Which of the following is strongly acidic?
1) Phenol 2) o-cresol 3) p-nitrophenol 4) p-cresol
Ans: (3)
38. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when
1) it is a small molecule 2) it has an unshared electron pair
3) it is a negatively charged ion 4) it is a positively charge ion
Ans: (2)
39. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a colligative property?
1) Elevation in boiling point 2) Depression in freezing point
3) Osmotic pressure 4) Lowering of vapour pressure
Ans: (4)
40. Acetone and Propanal are
1) Functional isomers 2) Position isomers
3) Geometrical isomers 4) Optical isomers
Ans: (1)
41. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
1) H2+ 2) He2+ 3) O2 4) N2
Ans: (4)
42. 3 gms of urea is dissolved in 45 gms of H2O. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is
1) 0.05 2) 0.04 3) 0.02 4) 0.01
Ans: (3)
43. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is
1) Tollen’s reagent 2) Fehling’s solution
3) 2-4-dinitrohenyl hydrazine 4) Semicarbazide
Ans: (2)
44. Metallic luster is due to
1) high density of metals 2) high polish on the surface of metals
3) reflection of light by mobile electrons 4) chemical inertness of metals
Ans: (3)
45. Which of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?
1) 0.01 M urea 2) 0.01 M KNO3 3) 0.01 M Na2SO4 4) 0.015M C6H12O6
Ans: (3)
46. Which one of the following gives amine on heating with amide?
1) Br2 in aqueous KOH 2) Br2 on alcoholic KOH
3) Cl2 in Sodium 4) Sodium in Ether
Ans: (1)
47. The number of antibonding electrons present in O2- molecular ion is
1) 8 2) 6 3) 5 4) 4
Ans: (3)
48. The process is spontaneous at the given temperature, if
1) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is –ve 2) ΔH is –ve and ΔS is +ve
3) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is +ve 4) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is equal to zero
Ans: (2)
49. Glucose when reduced with HI and Red Phosphorus gives
1) n-hexane 2) n-heptane 3) n-pentane 4) n-octane
Ans: (1)
50. The stability of a Lyophobic colloid is due to
1) Adsorption of covalent molecules on the colloid
2) The size of the particles
3) The charge on the particles
4) Tyndall effect
Ans: (1)
51. Oils are liquids at room temperature since they contain higher percentage of
1) Oleates 2)Palmitates 3) Stearates 4) Myristates
Ans: (1)
52. Which of the following cations will have minium flocculation value for arsenic sulphide sol?
1) Na+ 2) Mg2+ 3) Ca2+ 4) Al3+
Ans: (4)
53. The value of entropy of solar system is
1) increasing 2) decreasing 3) constant 4) zero
Ans: (1)
54. In face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
1) 6 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
Ans: (4)
55. The number of disulphide linkages present in Insulin are
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
Ans: (2)
56. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of
1) Al 2) Ge 3) Cu 4) Ag
Ans: (2)
57. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018 gm is
1) 6.022 x 1026 2) 6.022 x 1023 3) 6.022 x 1019 4) 6.022 x 1020
Ans: (4)
58. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and its molecular mass is 90, the molecular formula of the compound is
1) C3H6O3 2) C2H4O2 3) C6H12O6 4) CH2O
Ans: (1)
59. Hybridised states of carbon in Graphite and Diamond are respectively
1) sp3, sp3 2) sp3, sp2 3) sp2, sp2 4) sp2, sp3
Ans: (4)
60. The mass of 112 cm3 of NH3 gas at STP is
1) 0.085 g 2) 0.850 g 3) 8.500 g 4) 80.500 g
Ans: (1)
For my Friends... By Samheel
Source: www.expertclasses.org
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